Drilldown: Medicines
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Use the filters below to narrow your results.
generic:
brand:
classes:
Research material (131) ·
Classic Psychedelic (69) ·
Stimulant (43) ·
Opioid (31) ·
Sedative-Hypnotic (29) ·
Tryptamine (26) ·
Phenethylamine (25) ·
Botanical (23) ·
Benzodiazepine (22) ·
Anticonvulsant (19) ·
Dissociative (19) ·
Analgesic (17) ·
Antidepressant (17) ·
Antipsychotic (17) ·
Antiparkinsonian (16) ·
Empathogen (16) ·
Neuroleptic (16) ·
Cathinone (14) ·
Nootropic (13) ·
Lysergamide (12)
mechanism:
5-HT2A agonist (27) ·
GABAA positive allosteric modulator (22) ·
None (17) ·
Monoamine releasing agent (11) ·
CB1/CB2 agonist (7) ·
Potent mu-opioid receptor agonist (6) ·
Sodium channel blocker (6) ·
Dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (5) ·
GABAA potentiator; NMDA antagonist (5) ·
Phenothiazine D2 antagonist (5) ·
Potent 5-HT2A agonist (5) ·
5-HT1B/1D agonist (4) ·
LSD analogue; 5-HT2A agonist (4) ·
Mu-opioid receptor agonist (4) ·
Muscarinic receptor antagonist (4) ·
Prodrug of LSD; 5-HT2A agonist (4) ·
Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (4)
None (396) ·
Antimanic, Antidepressive, Antisuicide (1) ·
Pain, cough, disquiet (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-000001D9-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000001DA-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000001DB-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000001DC-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-00000661-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000662-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000663-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000664-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000665-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-00000862-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000863-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000864-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000865-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000866-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-0000099F-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000009A0-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000009A1-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000009A2-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000009A3-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000009A4-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-00000E23-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E24-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E25-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E26-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E27-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E28-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E29-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000E2A-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-00000F98-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000F99-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000F9A-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-00000F9B-QINU`"' (1) ·
'"`UNIQ--vote-000010AF-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000010B0-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000010B1-QINU`"', '"`UNIQ--vote-000010B2-QINU`"' (1)
None (398) ·
ICS Pulmicort Flexhaler 180-360 mcg BID; intranasal Rhinocort 64 mcg/spray, 1-2 sprays/nostril daily; Entocort EC 9 mg PO daily for active Crohn's; Symbicort 80/4.5 or 160/4.5 mcg, 2 puffs BID (1) ·
Indication-specific: 0.5-9 mg PO/IV daily for inflammation; 4 mg IV q6h for cerebral edema; 40 mg PO once weekly in MM; 6 mg PO/IV daily ×10 days for severe COVID-19; 0.6 mg/kg PO single dose for croup (max 16 mg) (1) ·
Inhaled (Flovent HFA) 88 mcg BID; intranasal (Flonase) 2 sprays/nostril daily; topical (Cutivate) 0.05% cream BID (1) ·
Intranasal Nasonex 2 sprays/nostril daily (50 mcg/spray); inhaled Asmanex 220 mcg DPI 1-2 inhalations daily/BID; topical Elocon 0.1% cream daily (1) ·
IV: traditional 1-1.7 mg/kg q8h or extended-interval 5-7 mg/kg q24h with target-trough monitoring; inhaled CF 300 mg BID × 28 days on / 28 days off; ophthalmic 1-2 drops in affected eye(s) q4h (1) ·
PO Medrol Dosepak (5-day taper from 24 mg to 4 mg) is the prototypic short-course outpatient regimen; IV pulse 1 g daily for 3-5 days for MS relapse; intra-articular 4-80 mg per joint q1-5 weeks (1) ·
Topical 0.025-0.5% cream/ointment BID; intra-articular 5-40 mg per joint q3-6 months; intranasal Nasacort 110 mcg/spray, 2 sprays/nostril daily; oral paste 0.1% to lesion 2-3×/d (1)
None (398) ·
0.5, 0.75, 1, 1.5, 2, 4, 6 mg tablets; oral solution; 4, 10, 20, 100 mg/mL IV; intravitreal implant (Ozurdex) (1) ·
2, 4, 8, 16, 32 mg oral tablets; 40, 125, 500, 1000 mg IV vials; Depo-Medrol 20, 40, 80 mg/mL IM depot (1) ·
Inhaled MDI 44/110/220 mcg per actuation; DPI (Diskus) 50/100/250 mcg; nasal spray 50 mcg/actuation; cream/ointment 0.005%, 0.05% (1) ·
IV 10 mg/mL, 40 mg/mL; inhaled 300 mg/5 mL solution (Tobi, Bethkis); Podhaler dry powder; 0.3% ophthalmic solution and ointment (1) ·
Nasonex 50 mcg/actuation intranasal; Asmanex HFA MDI 100/200 mcg; Asmanex Twisthaler DPI 110/220 mcg; Elocon 0.1% cream/ointment/lotion; Sinuva sinus implant; Dulera (with formoterol) (1) ·
Pulmicort Flexhaler DPI 90, 180 mcg/dose; Pulmicort Respules 0.25, 0.5, 1 mg/2 mL nebulized; Rhinocort intranasal 32 mcg/spray; Entocort EC 3 mg capsules; Uceris 9 mg ER tablets and rectal foam (1) ·
Topical creams, ointments, lotions, dental paste (0.025-0.5%); Kenalog 10 mg/mL, 40 mg/mL injection; Nasacort 55 mcg/spray intranasal; oral inhaler discontinued in US (1)
None (398) ·
ICS 880 mcg/d (asthma); intranasal 200 mcg/d (1) ·
ICS ~1280 mcg/d; intranasal 256 mcg/d; Entocort 9 mg/d standard (1) ·
Indication-specific (3) ·
Intranasal 200 mcg/d (adults); inhaled 880 mcg/d (1) ·
IV: monitored by levels (trough <1 mg/L for extended-interval; <2 mg/L for traditional) (1)
None (398) ·
Hours (1) ·
Hours (systemic); minutes (ophthalmic) (1) ·
Inhaled: bronchial effect 1-2 weeks; nasal: symptom relief 12-24 hours; topical: hours (1) ·
Inhaled: bronchial effect 1-2 weeks; oral GI effect 1-2 weeks (1) ·
Intranasal: symptom relief 12-24 hours; inhaled: bronchial effect 1-2 weeks (1) ·
IV pulse: hours; PO: hours; intra-articular: days (1) ·
Topical hours; intra-articular days to weeks (1)
None (397) ·
12-24 hours (1) ·
12-24 hours per dose (1) ·
24 hours (1) ·
6-12 hours systemic (1) ·
About 20 minutes (1) ·
Biologic 12-36 hours (intermediate-acting); Depo-Medrol depot weeks (1) ·
Biologic 36-72 hours (long-acting) (1) ·
Intra-articular 3-6 months (depot effect of acetonide microcrystals) (1)
None (397) ·
2-3 hours (normal renal function); markedly prolonged in renal impairment'"`UNIQ--ref-000010B3-QINU`"' (1) ·
9–12 minutes (intravenous) (1) ·
Plasma 2-3 hours; biologic ~18-36 hours'"`UNIQ--ref-00000867-QINU`"' (1) ·
Plasma ~3-4.5 hours; biologic ~36-72 hours'"`UNIQ--ref-00000E2B-QINU`"' (1) ·
Plasma ~3-5 hours; biologic effect substantially longer (~12-36 hours for intermediate-acting glucocorticoids)'"`UNIQ--ref-00000666-QINU`"' (1) ·
~2-3.6 hours (plasma)'"`UNIQ--ref-000009A5-QINU`"' (1) ·
~5 hours (plasma)'"`UNIQ--ref-00000F9C-QINU`"' (1) ·
~7.8 hours (fluticasone propionate, inhaled systemic exposure)'"`UNIQ--ref-000001DD-QINU`"' (1)
None (398) ·
<1% oral (extensive first-pass via CYP3A4); ~30% inhaled lung deposition'"`UNIQ--ref-000001DE-QINU`"' (1) ·
Intranasal: <1% systemic; inhaled lung deposition with extensive first-pass clearance'"`UNIQ--ref-00000F9D-QINU`"' (1) ·
IV/IM ~100%; inhaled: minimal systemic; oral: negligible (not used orally for systemic infection)'"`UNIQ--ref-000010B4-QINU`"' (1) ·
Topical/intranasal: high local, low systemic; intra-articular: local depot then systemic absorption'"`UNIQ--ref-00000667-QINU`"' (1) ·
~6-13% inhaled lung deposition; ~10% oral (Entocort EC; extensive first-pass via CYP3A4 — this is the basis of the favorable hepatic-targeted local-effect profile in IBD)'"`UNIQ--ref-000009A6-QINU`"' (1) ·
~80% (oral)'"`UNIQ--ref-00000E2C-QINU`"' (1) ·
~80-99% (oral)'"`UNIQ--ref-00000868-QINU`"' (1)
None (398) ·
Aminoglycoside-class ototoxicity in fetal cochlea is documented; use only when alternatives have failed.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Inhaled and intranasal generally considered safe; widely used in asthma in pregnancy.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Intranasal long considered acceptable; widely used in obstetric rhinitis.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Long the preferred ICS in pregnancy (Pulmicort) due to the most pregnancy data among the class.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Topical/intranasal generally low-risk; intra-articular and high-dose injection: weigh risk individually.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Use when benefits outweigh; small association with oral clefts in first trimester debated.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1) ·
Used in antenatal lung maturation (24-34 weeks gestation; 6 mg IM q12h × 4 doses); broader use weighs benefits against fetal HPA suppression.<sup class="pcp-cn" title="This claim needs a citation.">[[[Pharmacopedia:Citation needed|citation needed]]]</sup> (1)
None (397) ·
OTC (intranasal Flonase) and [[USLegal:Prescription only|Rx-only]] (inhaled, topical) in US (1) ·
OTC (intranasal Rhinocort Allergy) and [[USLegal:Prescription only|Rx-only]] (other forms) in US (1) ·
OTC (lowest-strength topicals) and [[USLegal:Prescription only|Rx-only]] (higher strengths, injectable) in US (1) ·
OTC (Nasonex 24HR) and [[USLegal:Prescription only|Rx-only]] (other forms) in US (1) ·
[[USLegal:DEA Schedule I|Schedule I]] (United States) (1) ·
[[USLegal:Prescription only|Rx-only]] in US (3)
Showing below up to 250 results in range #1 to #250.
1
2
- 2-AI
- 2-FA
- 2-FDCK
- 2-FMA
- 25B-NBOH
- 25B-NBOMe
- 25C-NBOH
- 25C-NBOMe
- 25I-NBOH
- 25I-NBOMe
- 25N-NBOMe
- 2C-B-FLY
- 2C-C
- 2C-D
- 2C-E
- 2C-I
- 2C-P
- 2C-T-2
- 2C-T-7
3
4
- 4-AcO-DET
- 4-AcO-DiPT
- 4-AcO-DMT
- 4-AcO-MET
- 4-AcO-MiPT
- 4-FA
- 4-FMA
- 4-HO-DET
- 4-HO-DiPT
- 4-HO-DPT
- 4-HO-EPT
- 4-HO-MET
- 4-HO-MiPT
- 4-MeO-PCP
- 4F-EPH
- 4F-MPH
5
6
7
A
B
- Baeocystin
- Benzocaine
- Benztropine
- Benzydamine
- Biperiden
- Blue lotus
- Brivaracetam
- Bromantane
- Bromazepam
- Bromo-DragonFLY
- Bromocriptine
- Brompheniramine
- Budesonide
- Bufotenin
- Bupivacaine
- Buprenorphine
- Butalbital
- Butorphanol
- Butylone
C
- Cabergoline
- Caffeine
- Calea zacatechichi
- Cannabidiol
- Carbidopa/levodopa
- Carfentanil
- Carisoprodol
- Cathinone
- CBG
- CBN
- Cenobamate
- Chlordiazepoxide
- Chloroform
- Chlorpheniramine
- Chlorpromazine
- Chlorzoxazone
- Clobazam
- Clomipramine
- Clonazolam
- Clorazepate
- Clozapine
- Cocaine
- Codeine
- Coluracetam
- Curare
- Cyclazodone
D
- Datura
- Delta-10-THC
- Delta-8-THC
- Deschloroetizolam
- Deschloroketamine
- Desflurane
- Desipramine
- Desomorphine
- Desoxypipradrol
- DET
- Dexamethasone
- Dexmedetomidine
- Dextroamphetamine
- Dextromethorphan
- Dextropropoxyphene
- Dextrorphan
- Diacetylmorphine
- Diclazepam
- Diethyl ether
- Dihydrocodeine
- Dihydroergotamine
- Dimenhydrinate
- Diphenidine
- DiPT
- Disulfiram
- DMT
- DOB
- DOC
- DOI
- DOM
- Doxylamine
- DPT
- Dronabinol
- Droperidol
E
- Eletriptan
- Entacapone
- Ephedrine
- Ephenidine
- Ephylone
- EPT
- Ergotamine
- Escaline
- Eslicarbazepine
- Esmolol
- Estazolam
- Eszopiclone
- ETH-LAD
- Ethcathinone
- Ethchlorvynol
- Ethosuximide
- Ethylmorphine
- Ethylone
- Ethylphenidate
- Eticyclidine
- Etizolam
- Etomidate
F
- F-Phenibut
- Felbamate
- Fenethylline
- Fenfluramine
- Fentanyl
- Flualprazolam
- Flubromazepam
- Flubromazolam
- Flunitrazepam
- Flunitrazolam
- Fluphenazine
- Flurazepam
- Fluticasone
- Fosphenytoin
- Frovatriptan
G
H
- Halothane
- Harmaline
- Harmine
- Hawaiian Baby Woodrose
- Hexedrone
- HHC
- Hydrocodone
- Hydromorphone
- Hyoscyamine
I
J
K
L
- L-Theanine
- Lacosamide
- Lasmiditan
- Levodopa
- Levomilnacipran
- Levorphanol
- Lithium
- Lixisenatide
- Lofexidine
- Lormetazepam
- Loxapine
- LSA
- LSH
- LSZ
- Lurasidone


